Q: What are the benefits to me, an environmental
professional, to achieving professional registration and/or certification?
A: There can be a myriad of benefits to achieving
professional registration and certification with NREP. However, you are
the key in determining the value and usefulness of these benefits, as well
as the ultimate recognition of your credential. You will derive the greatest
benefit from NREP certification when others see and hear about the quality
of your work for which you have been credentialed.
Benefits of NREP Certification
- Opportunities for career advancement, new jobs and pay increases
- Recognition of your environmental knowledge and experience by your peers; many city, state and federal government agencies, including the Resolution Trust Corporation, U.S. Department of Energy, U.S. Air Force, State of Alabama, State of Texas, U.S. EPA and the public
- Listing in NREP's (1) Official Registry of Environmental Professionals and (2) World Wide Web site of Credentialed Environmental Professionals
- Written verification of your qualifications by NREP to employers, governmental agencies and clients
- Access to specially rated errors and omissions insurance and an affinity credit card
- Discounts on Airborne Express delivery services; Hertz, Avis and Alamo car rentals; and published educational and reference materials
- Committee participation dealing with exam and credential development, national conferences, environmental education programs, local and regional affiliated organizations
In addition, NREP provides professional benefit to your credential through its membership and activities with the Council on Licensure Enforcement and Regulation, American Institute for Pollution Prevention, National Association of Environmental Risk Auditors, World Safety Organization, European Society for Environment & Development and the Environmental Training Institute of the Caribbean.
The ultimate beneficiary of all of this activity is truly the public being given the ability to easily identify professionals capable of protecting, preserving and managing the environment. An NREP credential can readily distinguish you as qualified to perform those kinds of functions.
Q: Do I have to take a refresher course prior
to exams?
A: Though not mandatory, many exam candidates
have found refresher workshops to be beneficial.
Q: What does NREP do for me?
A: NREP provides independent validation and
professional credentials recognizing your education, work experience, and
level of environmental knowledge through examination where no other exists.
At your request, NREP will provide that information to employers, agencies
or clients.
Q: Does EPA recognize NREP?
A: EPA's Office of the Inspector General has
credentialed NREP members on
its staff. Many other EPA staff are also credentialed by NREP.
The federal government's Resolution Trust Corporation (RTC), as well as
many States, cities, banks and private companies recognize environmental
credentials in bid proposals and/or for occupational certification.
Q: How are exams put together?
A: NREP has an Exam Committee of environmental
professionals representing universities, government and industry. Any NREP
credentialed environmental professional may submit questions for review
and consideration by the Exam Committee to be included on the exams. Special
exam question forms are available from NREP headquarters. Exams are
constantly in a state of revision to reflect the latest technology and
regulation.
Q: Is this like a professional engineer's license?
A:Only state governments can license people
to professionally practice engineering. NREP's programs parallel in design
professional engineer programs, but are only meant for individuals practicing
non-engineering environmental management, auditing and assessment activities.
NREP's exams are open book exams, except the Registered Environmental Manager (REM) which is a closed book exam.
Q: What kind of photo do I need on my application?
A: Attach any photo or photocopy that clearly
identifies you; i.e., driver's license, passport photo, employee ID, etc.
Q: Why is a REM the highest level, if an REP
requires an advanced degree?
A: REMs must take an NREP exam to prove their
environmental knowledge. REPs do not take an NREP exam, but must have passed
an exam offered by a certifying organization or university. REMs must have
proven environmental management/ coordination work experience. REPs do
not necessarily have an environmental work history, but only an advanced
degree or specialized certification.
Q: Can exams be taken by mail?
A: Yes, under the administration of a local
school or municipal library. Exams are sent directly to an NREP-approved
exam administrator. You may not take the exam home or to your office.
** In you have other specific questions relating to NREP exams and
exam procedures, contact:
Scott Spear, REM
Exam Committee Chairperson
E-mail: scott.spear@trin.net
Exam Question Submission Form
To submit a technical or scientific exam question to the NREP Exam Committee that reflects current environmental management practice, please print out the following form and mail it to NREP, PO Box 2099, Glenview, IL 60025. Exam Form.
1. SARA Title III inventory forms must be submitted by
(A) March 1.
(B) September 1.
(C) July 1.
(D) January 1.
2. A device for
quickly locating areas where hydrocarbon spills have occurred is a
(A) atomic absorption.
(B) mass spectrometer.
(C) combustible gas meter.
(D) organic vapor analyzer.
3. Which of the
following chemicals are exempt from TSCA’s PMN requirements?
(A) Water based solvents
(B) Dehalogenated monomers
(C) Biodegradable resins
(D) None of the above
4. Historical
rural land-use and ownership information is available from
A) topographic maps and plat maps.
B) plat maps and county business directories.
C) aerial photographs and topographic maps.
D) aerial photographs and county business directories.
5. What
designation must hazardous substances have on their labels?
(A) Reportable Quantity
(B) CERCLA-SARA Substance
(C) Toxic Substance
(D) Hazardous Waste
6. How long must
a wastewater discharger maintain copies of Discharge
Monitoring Reports?
(A) 3 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 7 years
(D) 10 years
7. MSDSs must be
available
(A) upon employees written request.
(B) at safety meetings.
(C) in employees work area.
(D) in employees training file.
8. SDWA limits
for toxics in potable water are called
(A) MCL.
(B) BAT.
(C) PEL.
(D) TLV.
9. RCRA land ban
prohibits the disposal of
(A) nonbiodegradable plastics.
(B) asbestos.
(C) PCB items only.
(D) liquid hazardous waste.
10. New Source
Reviews are required for all of the following EXCEPT
(A) major stationary sources.
(B) sources needing to use a significant portion of the existing
“increment(s).”
(C) sources with emission rates greater than “De Minimis.”
(D) major mobile sources.
11. RCRA land
disposal restriction regulations can be found in 40 CFR Part
(A) 265.
(B) 267.
(C) 268.
(D) 280.
12. An environmental
auditor comes onto a waste disposal site without permission. The site
is in an unpopulated area. At no time does the owner or operating
personnel know of anyone coming onto their site. The auditor falls into
a treatment pit and dies without anyone knowing. The pit is
protected by a heavy security fence. The site has protection that
is considered adequate by the courts for the industry. Does the
site owner owe a duty to protect the undiscovered trespasser/auditor
from harm on the site?
(A) Yes, regardless of any circumstances.
(B) No, regardless of any circumstances.
(C) Yes, if the trespasser is not insured.
(D) No, if the trespasser is insured.
1.
When conducting a Phase I ESA according to the ASTM E1527 standard, the scope
of inquiry is limited to CERCLA-regulated hazardous substances, other
hazardous substances as defined in the scope of practice, and petroleum
products.
(A) True
(B) False
(B) To expand beyond CERCLA is approved, but assessment is no longer an
ASTM standard.
(C) An ESA is limited to CERCLA, NPDES, and TRI issues.
2. What four
contaminants would an assessor be most concerned about at a
"typical" large agricultural operation?
(A) PERC, BTEX, Copper, and Lead
(B) Lead, Arsenic, EDB, and BTEX
(C) Diesel fuel, Copper, DDT, and Lead
(D) EDB, Copper, Selenium, and Paint Sludge
3. What is a
critical requirement for a Phase II assessment?
(A) Remediation plan
(B) Sampling plan
(C) Magnetometer
(D) EPA approval
4. If still in
use, after what year does EPA require registration of petroleum
underground storage tanks?
(A) 1970
(B) 1974
(C) 1980
(D) 1984
5. Which surface
feature indicates a groundwater discharge zone?
(A) A shallow depression void of vegetation with intermittent flow
(B) A deep grassy depression that is always dry
(C) A depression with year-round flow
(D) A deep non-vegetated ditch with intermittent flow
6. The primary
route of exposure to radon is via
(A) skin absorption.
(B) ingestion.
(C) inhalation.
(D) none of the above.
7. A soil sample
is collected for analysis of mercury. Which method is most appropriate
for analysis?
(A) Gas chromatographic
(B) Atomic absorption
(C) Gravimetric measurement
(D) Chromatography
8. Intake of a
chemical by humans is usually reported as
(A) mg/day.
(B) lb/day.
(C) mg/kg/day.
(D) mg/l.
9. Historical
data suggests that a building structure existed in the site being
investigated, and this structure was home for a company with a SIC code of
28. What type of information does this code tell the assessor?
(A) That the company paid the appropriate taxes
(B) The deed was originally recorded in 1928
(C) The industrial category of this company
(D) Detailed information on the waste stream of this company
10. Phase I
reports should include all of the following EXCEPT
(A) a site plan listing suspect areas of environmental risk.
(B) a list of the sources of information used in preparing the report.
(C) a deposition statement of location of all underground storage tanks.
(D) a discussion of the reasons for suspecting the area.
11. When
conducting a Phase I ESA to the ASTM E1527 Standard, the environmental
professional need only identify all obvious uses of the property from the
present back to 1940, even if the property was first developed in 1896.
(A) True
(B) False
(C) ASTM states a fifty year cutoff.
(D) Petroleum spills older than 1940 would have decomposed, thus, ASTM
looks upon such activities as unproductive in reaching viable conclusions.
12. The standard
language of a firm's Phase I ESA says that the work product is in accordance
with the ASTM E1527 Standard, but the conclusion statement does not follow
the ASTM conclusion language. The assessor determines that
(A) ASTM conclusion language is mandatory, and the statement is in error.
(B) ASTM conclusion language is guidance only, and the statement is okay.
(C) ASTM conclusion language is recommended and not standardized.
(D) ASTM E1527 offers a style for possible use and not exact wording.
1.
How can gamma radiation BEST be described?
(A) A form of electromagnetic radiation, similar to visible light,
whose rays have no mass or electrical charge.
(B) Ultraviolet light produced as a byproduct of transmutation.
(C) The gain of electrons by an atom or ion, leading to the
formation of free radicals and their associated
thermodynamic phenomena.
(D) A form of endonomic radiation, similar to electronegative
charges, whose form changes with time.
2. A soil sample
is reported to have 27 ppm of benzene. This is equivalent to how
many parts-per-thousand of benzene?
(A) 27,000
(B) 0.27
(C) 0.027
(D) 0.000037
3. Which of the
following chemical agents would be considered to have the greatest
flammability hazard?
(A) Chemical with flashpoint of 50 degrees F
(B) Chemical with flashpoint of 100 degrees F
(C) Chemical with flashpoint of 225 degrees F
(D) Chemical with flashpoint of 300 degrees F
4. In wastewater
analysis BOD means
(A) Biological Oxygen Digestion.
(B) Biochemical Oxygen Demand.
(C) Biochemical Organic Demand.
(D) Biological Organic Digestion.
5. The NPDES
system of the Clean Water Act sets enforceable limitations on
(A) the type of pollutants that can be discharged.
(B) the quantities of pollutants that can be discharged.
(C) both (A) and (B).
(D) neither (A) or (B).
6. Ten parts per
million is equivalent to
(A) 1,000 parts per billion.
(B) 10,000 parts per billion.
(C) 100,000 parts per billion.
(D) none of the above.
7. Benzene has
been discovered under a commercial office building. The extent of the
contaminant plume is believed to only occupy the Northwestern 1/8th of the
property, under an existing paved parking lot. The property is bordered
on the South and West sides by city streets, on the East side by another
commercial property of similar age, and on the North by the following, in
order:
(1) A petroleum pipeline easement with abandoned and closed
pipelines drained and closed in 1972.
(2) A high tension power line right of way, none of the right of way
is on the subject property.
(3) A large commercial office complex of slightly greater age than
the subject property.
Historically, all of the properties were originally part of the site of a
major synthetic rubber production facility of World War II origin. The
pipelines originally carried benzene used in the production of synthetic
rubber. Synthetic rubber manufacturing ended in 1953 and the site
demolished over the years from 1953 through 1972. A major chemical
corporation was the owner of record in 1972. From a geophysical point
of view, the land is essentially flat in all directions with surface runoff
being handled by municipally owned stormwater drainage ditches and
sewers. The groundwater has a very slight gradient to the
South-Southwest. Approximately one half-mile to the East of the subject
property is a known Superfund site containing a number of contaminants
including benzene. Which of the following is the most likely source of
contamination?
(A) The abandoned petroleum pipeline
(B) Spills resulting from the construction of the power line
(C) The Superfund site
(D) The leaking underground tanks
8. Which of the
following is the most likely possible additional contaminant source?
(A) Previously existing storage tanks on the subject property
(B) Dumping of production wastes
(C) Spills from the highway on the South side of the subject
property
(D) Construction activities associated with the commercial office
buildings
9. Which one of
the following requires an environmental management system (
(A) Insurance due diligence
(B) EPA permit process
(C) ISO 14001
(D) ASTM 1528
10. What is the
term for the total dose that results from the presence of the
radionuclide in the body during the entire lifetime of the individual, or
until 7 to 10 effective half-lives have gone by?
(A) Committed dose
(B) Effective dose
(C) Threshold-ceiling dose
(D) Derivative dose
11. TSCA
specifically regulates PCB usage
(A) in transformers.
(B) in copying processes.
(C) in hydraulic systems.
(D) in all of the above.
12. A Roentgen
Equivalent Man quantifies
(A) the amount of radiation required to produce a certain biological
effect in humans.
(B) the amount of radiation required to produce a certain biological
effect in laboratory animals.
(C) the rate at which the lanthanide series decays to form the
actinide series.
(D) the rate of radiation release during fission reactor products.
1. Some of
the procedures required by ISO 14001 include:
A) document control and management review.
B) management review and operational oversight auditing.
C) document control and operational oversight auditing.
D) document control, operational control, and management
training.
2. What does ISO 14001 require to be
considered when setting
environmental objectives:
A)
Significant environmental aspects accompanied by a detailed
technological options analysis
and business/financial
requirements
B) Views of interested parties, financial and operational
requirements, legal, and other
requirements subscribed to
C)
Significant environmental responsibilities with
management options and business requirements
D) Both environmental aspects evaluated to develop
prioritized environmental impacts
3. Which
ISO 14001 sub clause (s) requires management to provide
resources for environmental management system
implementation:
A)
4.3.3 Objectives, targets, and programme(s) and
4.4.2 Competence, training, and
awareness
B) 4.4.1 Resources, roles, responsibility and authority and
4.6 Management review
C) 4.4.6 Operational control
D) 4.5.5 Internal audit
4.
Consideration of legal requirements, significant environmental aspects,
technology, financial, operational options and the views of interested
parties are specified in which ISO 14001 sub clause:
A) 4.3.1 Environmental aspects
B) 4.3.2 Legal and other requirements
C) 4.3.3 Objectives, targets and programme(s)
D) 4.4.1 Resources, roles, responsibility and authority
5.
An environmental impact is a:
A) change to the environment.
B) precursor to environmental aspects.
C) detailed performance requirement.
D) primary focus of the environmental management programme.
6. ISO14001
requires that the training needs of all personnel must be:
A)
determined by the management representative.
B)
determined by peer review.
C) reviewed for all employees whose actions can influence environmental
aspects.
D) recorded in employee performance review files.
7. The
A) a nonconformance of Structure and responsibility.
B) a nonconformance of Environmental management system.
C) a nonconformance of Operational control.
D) not a nonconformance
of ISO 14001.
8. ISO
14001
A)
follow-up on corrective/preventive actions.
B) evaluation of compliance with legislation and regulation.
C) analysis of fundamental causes of nonconformance.
D) determination of conformance to planned arrangements.
9. An
organization’s waste minimization programme mandates a 25% reduction of its
waste within two years. Achieving their programme objectives would be defined
as:
A)
3.2 continual improvement.
B) 3.10 environmental performance.
C) 3.12 environmental target.
D) 3.18 prevention of pollution.
10. Which
document control requirement is specified by ISO 14001:
A) Current versions of relevant documents are to be available at locations
where essential operations are performed.
B) Personnel shall have access to obsolete documents if needed to perform
a function.
C) Audit checklists shall be controlled.
D) Retention periods for documents shall be as specified in the environmental
management programme manual.
11. Which
statement is FALSE?
A) Environmental objectives
lead to environmental impacts.
B) Environmental targets are important to constructing environmental
programs.
C) Environmental aspects always lead to environmental impacts.
D) Environmental impacts always outnumber environmental aspects.
1.
Vapor pressure in the atmosphere is
(A) the pressure exerted by water vapor in a given volume of air.
(B) the measure of the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
(C) indirectly related to the absolute humidity of the atmosphere.
(D) the pressure exerted by nitrogen.
2. To qualify as
a UST, what is the MINIMUM percentage of the tank and associated piping
that must be underground?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 25
3. What is one of
the most common toxins in metal finishing wastes?
(A) Cyanates
(B) BETX
(C) Acetone
(D) Toluene
4. Possible
contamination sources include
(A) neuroscopic brake linings.
(B) PCB refrigerants.
(C) surface impoundments.
(D) fluoramic-based insulation.
5. In a
temperature inversion, a layer of
(A) cold air overlies a layer of cooler air.
(B) warm air overlies a layer of cooler air.
(C) frigid air overlies a layer of moist air.
(D) moist air overlies a layer of dry air.
6.In order to preserve
the "innocent landowner defense," Phase I environmental assessments
should be performed
(A) with due diligence.
(B) within 2 weeks of assignment by the client.
(C) with minimum consultation with government officials.
(D) with environmental sampling.
7. Where can
federal environmental regulations administered by the EPA be found?
(A) 49 CFR
(B) 40 CFR
(C) 21 CFR
(D) 20 CFR
8. Title III of
the Clean Air Act Amendments addresses
(A) carbon monoxide.
(B) hazardous air pollutants (HAPS).
(C) fuel sources.
(D) raw materials.
9. Which water
pollutant is removed by the primary treatment of wastewater?
(A) Volatile organics
(B) Nitrogens
(C) Large particulates
(D) Calcium chloride
10. What is
flashpoint?
(A) The ignition temperature of a true gas
(B) The titration point for a solvent
(C) The temperature at which a liquid produces visible vapors
(D) The lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off enough vapor
to form an ignitable mixture with air
1. All the
halogens have a valence of
a) neutral
b) positive 1
c) minus 1
d) minus 2
e) positive 2
2. Epidemiology is the
study of the
a) incidence of disease in the population
b) epidermal layer of the skin
c) human genetics
d) middle portion of the abdomen
e) none of the above
3. Water in the
capillary zone is held in place by
a) gravity
b) Darcy's Law
c) hydraulic conductivity
d) surface tension
e) traction
4. Life stages in the
environmental assessment of a product include
a) resource extraction
b) product manufacture and packaging
c) regulatory time frame allocated to hazardous waste storage
d) all of the above
e) a and b
5. Which of the
following is NOT true? The atomic weight of any element, expressed in grams
contains
a) 6.023 x 1023 atoms
b) 1 mole
c) Avogadro's number
d) 1 gram molecular weight
e) sum of the electrons, protons and neutrons
6. Sediments are turned
into solid rocks by the processes of
a) compaction and metamorphism
b) compaction and cementation
c) cementation and metamorphism
d) deposition and cementation
e) deposition and compaction
6. Auto ignition
temperature of a material is
a) it's flash point
b) it's UEL
c) it's LEL
d) it's minimum temperature where rapid combustion takes place in
the absence
of additional heat
e) it's maximum temperature where rapid combustion takes place in
the absence
of additional heat
7. The great variation
seen in toxic effects produced by a chemical reaction in biological systems
has been attributed to which of the following factors
a) properties of the chemicals
b) variable sensitivity of biological systems
c) variable nature of the exposure dose, route, concentration and
length of time
d) variable nature of the effect
e) all of the above
8. In a chemical
reaction
a) the nucleus remains unchanged except for exothermic reactions
b) the nucleus remains unchanged except for endothermic reactions
c) electrons rearrange and the nucleus remains unchanged
d) electrons remain unchanged and the nucleus changes
e) the electrons rearrange and the nucleus changes
9. Energy recovery from
solid waste is associated with
a) shredding and baling of waste
b) materials recovery
c) incineration
d) pyrolysis
e) c and d
10. A river flows out
of the desert mountains onto a plain. If you were looking up the river
valley into the mountains, what would you see?
a) a narrow valley with a fan of conglomerate
b) a broad valley with a fan of conglomerate
c) a narrow valley with sandy deposits
d) a broad valley with sandy deposits
e) a broad valley with limestone formed by springs
11. Radioactivity can
originate
a) in the electron rings only
b) in those chemicals that are solids only
c) in the nucleus and the electron ring
d) only if the nucleus contains an overabundance of neutrons
e) only in those elements where the atomic weight is high
12. System
transformations associated with mass balance accounting occur as a result of
a) dose/response relationships
b) byproducts being formed
c) equilibrium within the system
d) compounds being destroyed
e) b and d
1. When conducting a
hazardous waste characterization on a sample, what does RCI
represent?
a. Radon, Characterization, Index
b. Reactive, Compounds, Index
c. Reactivity, Corrosivity, Ignitability
d. Redox, Combustion, Indicator
2. Carbon Disulfide is
commonly used in the laboratory to ____?
a. Desorb charcoal tubes
b. Clean detectors
c. Disinfect bench tops
d. Eluent in ion chromatography
3. Which statement is
TRUE regarding BOD and COD sample values?
a. BOD is always greater than or equal to COD
b. The same amount of time is required to conduct both analysis
c. COD is always greater than or equal to BOD
d. None of the above
4. An atomic absorption
(AA) instrument is used to determine the presence of ___.
a. Metals
b. Organics
c. Nitrates
d. Ammonia
5. Samples for oil and
grease analysis may be preserved with ___.
a. Phospheric acid
b. Nitric acid
c. Sulfuric acid or hydrochloric acid
d. Sodium hydroxide
6. An important
requirement for the collection of groundwater samples for VOC analysis in
40 ml vials is that ___
a. The temperature remains constant
b. The temperature remains at -20oF
c. The vials are free of air bubbles
d. The samples are preserved with ascorbic acid
7. Polynuclear aromatic
hydrocarbons (PAH) are classified as ___.
a. Semivolatile organic compounds
b. Pesticides
c. Volatile organic compounds
d. Straight chain saturated organic compounds
8. EPA method 625
measures BNA semivolatiles by GC/MS. What is BNA?
a. Base, neutron, azides
b. Base, neutral, anion
c. Boron, neutron, anion
d. Base/neutral and acid extractables
9. Aqueous samples for
TPH analysis are preserved with ___.
a. Nitric acid
b. Sulfuric acid
c. Hydrochloric acid
d. Sodium hydroxide
10. EPA SW-846 is the
analytical reference source for ___.
a. Drinking water analysis
b. Solid and hazardous waste analysis
c. NPDES analysis
d. SPCC sampling requirements
11. Samples for
TCLP metals analysis should be rotated for ___ +2 hours?
a. 24 hours
b. 10 hours
c. 18 hours
d. 36 hours
12. Airborne volatile
organic compounds may be collected in a grab sample by using:
a. A Tedlar bag with a sample pump
b. An untreated filter cassette
c. A cascade impactor
d. A cyclone