Click here to view Typical Exam Questions

Question: What are the benefits to me, an environmental professional, in achieving professional registration and/or certification?
Answer: There can be a myriad of benefits to achieving professional registration and certification with NREP. However, you are the key in determining the value and usefulness of these benefits, as well as the ultimate recognition of your credential. You will derive the greatest benefit from NREP certification when others see and hear about the quality of your work for which you have been credentialed.

Benefits of NREP Certification
• Opportunities for career advancement, new jobs, and pay increases.
• Recognition of your environmental knowledge and experience by your peers.
• Many city, state, and federal government agencies, including the Resolution Trust Corporation, U.S. Department of Energy, U.S. Air Force, State of Alabama, State of Texas, U.S. EPA, and the public are all able to see what you've accomplished.
• Listing in NREP's
1. Official Registry of Environmental Professionals, and
2. Website of Credentialed Environmental Professionals.
• Written verification of your qualifications by NREP to employers, governmental agencies, and clients.
• Access to specially rated errors and omissions insurance and an affinity credit card.
• Discounts on Airborne Express delivery services; Hertz, Avis and Alamo car rentals; and published educational and reference materials.
• Committee participation dealing with exam and credential development, national conferences, environmental education programs, and local and regional affiliated organizations.

NREP adds further to the benefits of its credentials by way of extensive public education and outreach programs through trade show exhibits and conferences, testifying before governmental agencies, and presentations to civic, technical, and scientific organizations.

In addition, NREP provides professional benefits to your credential through its membership and activities with the Council on Licensure Enforcement and Regulation, the American Institute for Pollution Prevention, the National Association of Environmental Risk Auditors, the World Safety Organization, the European Society for Environment and Development, and the Environmental Training Institute of the Caribbean.

The public ultimately benefits from all of this activity—they are given the ability to easily identify professionals capable of protecting, preserving, and managing the environment. An NREP credential can readily distinguish you as qualified to perform those kinds of functions.

Question: Do I have to take a refresher course prior to exams?
Answer: Though not mandatory, many exam candidates have found refresher workshops to be beneficial.

Question: What does NREP do for me?
Answer: NREP provides independent validation and professional credentials recognizing your education, work experience, and level of environmental knowledge through examination where no other exists. At your request, NREP will provide that information to employers, agencies, or clients.

Question: Does EPA recognize NREP?
Answer: The EPA's Office of the Inspector General has credentialed NREP members on its staff. Many other EPA staff are also credentialed by NREP. The federal government's Resolution Trust Corporation (RTC), as well as many states, cities, banks, and private companies also recognize environmental credentials in bid proposals and/or for occupational certification.

Question: How are the exams put together?
Answer: NREP has an Exam Committee of environmental professionals representing universities, government, and industry. Any NREP credentialed environmental professional may submit questions for review and consideration by the Exam Committee to be included on the exams. Special exam question forms are available from NREP headquarters. Exams are constantly in a state of revision to reflect the latest technology and regulation.

Question: Is this like a professional engineer's license?
Answer: Only state governments can license people to practice engineering professionally. NREP's programs are parallel in design to professional engineer programs, but are only meant for individuals practicing non-engineering environmental management, auditing, and assessment activities. NREP's exams are open book exams as are the PE exams.

Question: What kind of photo do I need on my application?
Answer: Attach any photo or photocopy that clearly identifies you (e.g., driver's license, passport photo, employee ID, etc.)

Question: Why is a REM the highest level, if an REP requires an advanced degree?
Answer: REMs must take an NREP exam to prove their environmental knowledge. REPs do not take an NREP exam, but must have passed an exam offered by a certifying organization or university. REMs must have proven environmental management and/or coordination work experience. REPs do not necessarily have an environmental work history, but only an advanced degree or specialized certification.

Question: Can exams be taken by mail?
Answer: Yes, under the administration of a local school or municipal library. Exams are sent directly to an NREP-approved exam administrator. You may not take the exam home or to your office.

Typical Exam Questions:

The following consists of a few of the sample questions you might expect on the sundry exams offered by the NREP. The list is one which changes as the fields open up and requirements change, so be sure to keep on top of the latest information.

If you have a technical or scientific question that you would like to see as a sample question, please notify the NREP Exam Committee by mailing it to:
National Registry of Environmental Professionals
Director of Operations
P.O. Box 2099
Glenview, IL 60025

Please make sure that the questions fully reflect the current environmental management practice and that it accurately assesses the knowledge of the participant.

TYPICAL CEA EXAM QUESTIONS - Click Here to Schedule this Exam
1. SARA Title III inventory forms must be submitted by
(A) March 1.
(B) September 1.
(C) July 1.
(D) January 1.

2. A device for quickly locating areas where hydrocarbon spills have occurred is a
(A) atomic absorption.
(B) mass spectrometer.
(C) combustible gas meter.
(D) organic vapor analyzer.

3. Which of the following chemicals are exempt from TSCA’s PMN requirements?
(A) Water based solvents
(B) Dehalogenated monomers
(C) Biodegradable resins
(D) None of the above

4. Historical rural land-use and ownership information is available from
A) topographic maps and plat maps.
B) plat maps and county business directories.
C) aerial photographs and topographic maps.
D) aerial photographs and county business directories.

5. What designation must hazardous substances have on their labels?
(A) Reportable Quantity
(B) CERCLA-SARA Substance
(C) Toxic Substance
(D) Hazardous Waste

6. How long must a wastewater discharger maintain copies of Discharge
Monitoring Reports?
(A) 3 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 7 years
(D) 10 years

7. MSDSs must be available
(A) upon employees written request.
(B) at safety meetings.
(C) in employees work area.
(D) in employees training file.

8. SDWA limits for toxics in potable water are called
(A) MCL.
(B) BAT.
(C) PEL.
(D) TLV.

9. RCRA land ban prohibits the disposal of
(A) nonbiodegradable plastics.
(B) asbestos.
(C) PCB items only.
(D) liquid hazardous waste.

10. New Source Reviews are required for all of the following EXCEPT
(A) major stationary sources.
(B) sources needing to use a significant portion of the existing “increment(s).”
(C) sources with emission rates greater than “De Minimis.”
(D) major mobile sources.

11. RCRA land disposal restriction regulations can be found in 40 CFR Part
(A) 265.
(B) 267.
(C) 268.
(D) 280.

12. An environmental auditor comes onto a waste disposal site without permission. The site is in an unpopulated area. At no time does the owner or operating personnel know of anyone coming onto their site. The auditor falls into a treatment pit and dies without anyone knowing. The pit is protected by a heavy security fence. The site has protection that is considered adequate by the courts for the industry. Does the site owner owe a duty to protect the undiscovered trespasser/auditor from harm on the site?
(A) Yes, regardless of any circumstances.
(B) No, regardless of any circumstances.
(C) Yes, if the trespasser is not insured.
(D) No, if the trespasser is insured.


TYPICAL REPA EXAM QUESTIONS - Click Here to Schedule this Exam
1. When conducting a Phase I ESA according to the ASTM E1527 standard, the scope of inquiry is limited to CERCLA-regulated hazardous substances, other hazardous substances as defined in the scope of practice, and petroleum products.
(A) True
(B) False
(B) To expand beyond CERCLA is approved, but assessment is no longer an ASTM standard.
(C) An ESA is limited to CERCLA, NPDES, and TRI issues.

2. What four contaminants would an assessor be most concerned about at a "typical" large agricultural operation?
(A) PERC, BTEX, Copper, and Lead
(B) Lead, Arsenic, EDB, and BTEX
(C) Diesel fuel, Copper, DDT, and Lead
(D) EDB, Copper, Selenium, and Paint Sludge

3. What is a critical requirement for a Phase II assessment?
(A) Remediation plan
(B) Sampling plan
(C) Magnetometer
(D) EPA approval

4. If still in use, after what year does EPA require registration of petroleum underground storage tanks?
(A) 1970
(B) 1974
(C) 1980
(D) 1984

5. Which surface feature indicates a groundwater discharge zone?
(A) A shallow depression void of vegetation with intermittent flow
(B) A deep grassy depression that is always dry
(C) A depression with year-round flow
(D) A deep non-vegetated ditch with intermittent flow

6. The primary route of exposure to radon is via
(A) skin absorption.
(B) ingestion.
(C) inhalation.
(D) none of the above.

7. A soil sample is collected for analysis of mercury. Which method is most appropriate for analysis?
(A) Gas chromatographic
(B) Atomic absorption
(C) Gravimetric measurement
(D) Chromatography

8. Intake of a chemical by humans is usually reported as
(A) mg/day.
(B) lb/day.
(C) mg/kg/day.
(D) mg/l.

9. Historical data suggests that a building structure existed in the site being investigated, and this structure was home for a company with a SIC code of 28. What type of information does this code tell the assessor?
(A) That the company paid the appropriate taxes
(B) The deed was originally recorded in 1928
(C) The industrial category of this company
(D) Detailed information on the waste stream of this company

10. Phase I reports should include all of the following EXCEPT
(A) a site plan listing suspect areas of environmental risk.
(B) a list of the sources of information used in preparing the report.
(C) a deposition statement of location of all underground storage tanks.
(D) a discussion of the reasons for suspecting the area.

11. When conducting a Phase I ESA to the ASTM E1527 Standard, the environmental professional need only identify all obvious uses of the property from the present back to 1940, even if the property was first developed in 1896.
(A) True
(B) False
(C) ASTM states a fifty year cutoff.
(D) Petroleum spills older than 1940 would have decomposed, thus, ASTM looks upon such activities as unproductive in reaching viable conclusions.

12. The standard language of a firm's Phase I ESA says that the work product is in accordance with the ASTM E1527 Standard, but the conclusion statement does not follow the ASTM conclusion language. The assessor determines that
(A) ASTM conclusion language is mandatory, and the statement is in error.
(B) ASTM conclusion language is guidance only, and the statement is okay.
(C) ASTM conclusion language is recommended and not standardized.
(D) ASTM E1527 offers a style for possible use and not exact wording.


TYPICAL RHCMM EXAM QUESTIONS - Click Here to Schedule this Exam (unlinked)
1. How can gamma radiation BEST be described?
(A) A form of electromagnetic radiation, similar to visible light, whose rays have no mass or electrical charge.
(B) Ultraviolet light produced as a byproduct of transmutation.
(C) The gain of electrons by an atom or ion, leading to the formation of free radicals and their associated thermodynamic phenomena.
(D) A form of endonomic radiation, similar to electronegative charges, whose form changes with time.

2. A soil sample is reported to have 27 ppm of benzene. This is equivalent to how many parts-per-thousand of benzene?
(A) 27,000
(B) 0.27
(C) 0.027
(D) 0.000037

3. Which of the following chemical agents would be considered to have the greatest flammability hazard?
(A) Chemical with flashpoint of 50 degrees F
(B) Chemical with flashpoint of 100 degrees F
(C) Chemical with flashpoint of 225 degrees F
(D) Chemical with flashpoint of 300 degrees F

4. In wastewater analysis BOD means
(A) Biological Oxygen Digestion.
(B) Biochemical Oxygen Demand.
(C) Biochemical Organic Demand.
(D) Biological Organic Digestion.

5. The NPDES system of the Clean Water Act sets enforceable limitations on
(A) the type of pollutants that can be discharged.
(B) the quantities of pollutants that can be discharged.
(C) both (A) and (B).
(D) neither (A) or (B).

6. Ten parts per million is equivalent to
(A) 1,000 parts per billion.
(B) 10,000 parts per billion.
(C) 100,000 parts per billion.
(D) none of the above.

7. Benzene has been discovered under a commercial office building. The extent of the contaminant plume is believed to only occupy the Northwestern 1/8th of the property, under an existing paved parking lot. The property is bordered on the South and West sides by city streets, on the East side by another commercial property of similar age, and on the North by the following, in order:
(1) A petroleum pipeline easement with abandoned and closed pipelines drained and closed in 1972.
(2) A high tension power line right of way, none of the right of way is on the subject property.
(3) A large commercial office complex of slightly greater age than the subject property.

8. Historically, all of the properties were originally part of the site of a major synthetic rubber production facility of World War II origin. The pipelines originally carried benzene used in the production of synthetic rubber. Synthetic rubber manufacturing ended in 1953 and the site demolished over the years from 1953 through 1972. A major chemical corporation was the owner of record in 1972. From a geophysical point of view, the land is essentially flat in all directions with surface runoff being handled by municipally owned storm water drainage ditches and sewers. The groundwater has a very slight gradient to the South-Southwest. Approximately one half-mile to the East of the subject property is a known Superfund site containing a number of contaminants including benzene. Which of the following is the most likely source of contamination?
(A) The abandoned petroleum pipeline
(B) Spills resulting from the construction of the power line
(C) The Superfund site
(D) The leaking underground tanks

9. Which of the following is the most likely possible additional contaminant source?
(A) Previously existing storage tanks on the subject property
(B) Dumping of production wastes
(C) Spills from the highway on the South side of the subject property
(D) Construction activities associated with the commercial office buildings

10. Which one of the following requires an environmental management system (EMS) audit?
(A) Insurance due diligence
(B) EPA permit process
(C) ISO 14001
(D) ASTM 1528

11. What is the term for the total dose that results from the presence of the radionuclide in the body during the entire lifetime of the individual, or until 7 to 10 effective half-lives have gone by?
(A) Committed dose
(B) Effective dose
(C) Threshold-ceiling dose
(D) Derivative dose

12. TSCA specifically regulates PCB usage
(A) in transformers.
(B) in copying processes.
(C) in hydraulic systems.
(D) in all of the above.

13. A Roentgen Equivalent Man quantifies
(A) the amount of radiation required to produce a certain biological effect in humans.
(B) the amount of radiation required to produce a certain biological effect in laboratory animals.
(C) the rate at which the lanthanide series decays to form the actinide series.
(D) the rate of radiation release during fission reactor products.


TYPICAL CESM EXAM QUESTIONS - Click Here to Schedule this Exam (unlinked)
1. Some of the procedures required by ISO 14001 include:
A) document control and management review.
B) management review and operational oversight auditing.
C) document control and operational oversight auditing.
D) document control, operational control, and management
training.

2. What does ISO 14001 require to be considered when setting environmental objectives:
A) Significant environmental aspects accompanied by a detailed technological options analysis and business/financial requirements
B) Views of interested parties, financial and operational requirements, legal, and other requirements subscribed to
C) Significant environmental responsibilities with management options and business requirements
D) Both environmental aspects evaluated to develop prioritized environmental impacts

3. Which ISO 14001 sub clause (s) requires management to provide resources for environmental management system implementation:
A) 4.3.3 Objectives, targets, and program(s) and  4.4.2 Competence, training, and awareness
B) 4.4.1 Resources, roles, responsibility and authority and 4.6 Management review
C) 4.4.6 Operational control
D) 4.5.5 Internal audit

4. Consideration of legal requirements, significant environmental aspects, technology, financial, operational options and the views of interested parties are specified in which ISO 14001 sub clause:
A) 4.3.1 Environmental aspects
B) 4.3.2 Legal and other requirements
C) 4.3.3 Objectives, targets and program(s)
D) 4.4.1 Resources, roles, responsibility and authority

5. An environmental impact is a:
A) change to the environment.
B) precursor to environmental aspects.
C) detailed performance requirement.
D) primary focus of the environmental management program.

6. ISO14001 requires that the training needs of all personnel must be:
A) determined by the management representative.
B) determined by peer review.
C) reviewed for all employees whose actions can influence environmental aspects.
D) recorded in employee performance review files.

7. The EMS team finds that the management representative has other duties as a purchasing agent. This situation is:
A) a non-conformance of Structure and responsibility.
B) a non-conformance of Environmental management system.
C) a non-conformance of Operational control.
D) not a non-conformance of ISO 14001.

8. ISO 14001 EMS audit requirements include:
A) follow-up on corrective/preventive actions.
B) evaluation of compliance with legislation and regulation.
C) analysis of fundamental causes of non-conformance.
D) determination of conformance to planned arrangements.

9. An organization’s waste minimization program mandates a 25% reduction of its waste within two years. Achieving their program objectives would be defined as:
A) 3.2 continual improvement.
B) 3.10 environmental performance.
C) 3.12 environmental target.
D) 3.18 prevention of pollution.

10. Which document control requirement is specified by ISO 14001:
A) Current versions of relevant documents are to be available at locations where essential operations are performed.
B) Personnel shall have access to obsolete documents if needed to perform a function.
C) Audit checklists shall be controlled.
D) Retention periods for documents shall be as specified in the environmental management program manual.

11. Which statement is FALSE?
A) Environmental objectives lead to environmental impacts.
B) Environmental targets are important to constructing environmental programs.
C) Environmental aspects always lead to environmental impacts.
D) Environmental impacts always outnumber environmental aspects.


TYPICAL AEP EXAM QUESTIONS - Click Here to Schedule this Exam
1. Vapor pressure in the atmosphere is
(A) the pressure exerted by water vapor in a given volume of air.
(B) the measure of the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
(C) indirectly related to the absolute humidity of the atmosphere.
(D) the pressure exerted by nitrogen.

2. To qualify as a UST, what is the MINIMUM percentage of the tank and associated piping that must be underground?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 25

3. What is one of the most common toxins in metal finishing wastes?
(A) Cyanates
(B) BETX
(C) Acetone
(D) Toluene

4. Possible contamination sources include
(A) neuroscopic brake linings.
(B) PCB refrigerants.
(C) surface impoundments.
(D) fluoramic-based insulation.

5. In a temperature inversion, a layer of
(A) cold air overlies a layer of cooler air.
(B) warm air overlies a layer of cooler air.
(C) frigid air overlies a layer of moist air.
(D) moist air overlies a layer of dry air.

6.In order to preserve the "innocent landowner defense," Phase I environmental assessments should be performed
(A) with due diligence.
(B) within 2 weeks of assignment by the client.
(C) with minimum consultation with government officials.
(D) with environmental sampling.

7. Where can federal environmental regulations administered by the EPA be found?
(A) 49 CFR
(B) 40 CFR
(C) 21 CFR
(D) 20 CFR

8. Title III of the Clean Air Act Amendments addresses
(A) carbon monoxide.
(B) hazardous air pollutants (HAPS).
(C) fuel sources.
(D) raw materials.

9. Which water pollutant is removed by the primary treatment of wastewater?
(A) Volatile organics
(B) Nitrogens
(C) Large particulates
(D) Calcium chloride

10. What is flashpoint?
(A) The ignition temperature of a true gas
(B) The titration point for a solvent
(C) The temperature at which a liquid produces visible vapors
(D) The lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off enough vapor to form an ignitable mixture with air


TYPICAL CES EXAM QUESTIONS - Click Here to Schedule this Exam
1. All the halogens have a valence of
a) neutral
b) positive 1
c) minus 1
d) minus 2
e) positive 2

2. Epidemiology is the study of the
a) incidence of disease in the population
b) epidermal layer of the skin
c) human genetics
d) middle portion of the abdomen
e) none of the above

3. Water in the capillary zone is held in place by
a) gravity
b) Darcy's Law
c) hydraulic conductivity
d) surface tension
e) traction

4. Life stages in the environmental assessment of a product include
a) resource extraction
b) product manufacture and packaging
c) regulatory time frame allocated to hazardous waste storage
d) all of the above
e) a and b

5. Which of the following is NOT true? The atomic weight of any element, expressed in grams contains
a) 6.023 x 1023 atoms
b) 1 mole
c) Avogadro's number
d) 1 gram molecular weight
e) sum of the electrons, protons and neutrons

6. Sediments are turned into solid rocks by the processes of
a) compaction and metamorphism
b) compaction and cementation
c) cementation and metamorphism
d) deposition and cementation
e) deposition and compaction

6. Auto ignition temperature of a material is
a) it's flash point
b) it's UEL
c) it's LEL
d) it's minimum temperature where rapid combustion takes place in the absence
of additional heat
e) it's maximum temperature where rapid combustion takes place in the absence
of additional heat

7. The great variation seen in toxic effects produced by a chemical reaction in biological systems has been attributed to which of the following factors
a) properties of the chemicals
b) variable sensitivity of biological systems
c) variable nature of the exposure dose, route, concentration and length of time
d) variable nature of the effect
e) all of the above

8. In a chemical reaction
a) the nucleus remains unchanged except for exothermic reactions
b) the nucleus remains unchanged except for endothermic reactions
c) electrons rearrange and the nucleus remains unchanged
d) electrons remain unchanged and the nucleus changes
e) the electrons rearrange and the nucleus changes

9. Energy recovery from solid waste is associated with
a) shredding and baling of waste
b) materials recovery
c) incineration
d) pyrolysis
e) c and d

10. A river flows out of the desert mountains onto a plain. If you were looking up the river valley into the mountains, what would you see?
a) a narrow valley with a fan of conglomerate
b) a broad valley with a fan of conglomerate
c) a narrow valley with sandy deposits
d) a broad valley with sandy deposits
e) a broad valley with limestone formed by springs

11. Radioactivity can originate
a) in the electron rings only
b) in those chemicals that are solids only
c) in the nucleus and the electron ring
d) only if the nucleus contains an overabundance of neutrons
e) only in those elements where the atomic weight is high

12. System transformations associated with mass balance accounting occur as a result of
a) dose/response relationships
b) byproducts being formed
c) equilibrium within the system
d) compounds being destroyed
e) b and d


TYPICAL RELT EXAM QUESTIONS - Click Here to Schedule this Exam (unlinked)
1. When conducting a hazardous waste characterization on a sample, what does RCI represent?
a. Radon, Characterization, Index
b. Reactive, Compounds, Index
c. Reactivity, Corrosiveness, Ignitability
d. Redox, Combustion, Indicator

2. Carbon Disulfide is commonly used in the laboratory to ____?
a. Desorb charcoal tubes
b. Clean detectors
c. Disinfect bench tops
d. Eluent in ion chromatography

3. Which statement is TRUE regarding BOD and COD sample values?
a. BOD is always greater than or equal to COD
b. The same amount of time is required to conduct both analysis
c. COD is always greater than or equal to BOD
d. None of the above

4. An atomic absorption (AA) instrument is used to determine the presence of ___.
a. Metals
b. Organics
c. Nitrates
d. Ammonia

5. Samples for oil and grease analysis may be preserved with ___.
a. Phospheric acid
b. Nitric acid
c. Sulfuric acid or hydrochloric acid
d. Sodium hydroxide

6. An important requirement for the collection of groundwater samples for VOC analysis in
40 ml vials is that ___
a. The temperature remains constant
b. The temperature remains at -20oF
c. The vials are free of air bubbles
d. The samples are preserved with ascorbic acid

7. Polynuclear aromatic hydrocarbons (PAH) are classified as ___.
a. Semivolatile organic compounds
b. Pesticides
c. Volatile organic compounds
d. Straight chain saturated organic compounds

8. EPA method 625 measures BNA semivolatiles by GC/MS. What is BNA?
a. Base, neutron, azides
b. Base, neutral, anion
c. Boron, neutron, anion
d. Base/neutral and acid extractables

9. Aqueous samples for TPH analysis are preserved with ___.
a. Nitric acid
b. Sulfuric acid
c. Hydrochloric acid
d. Sodium hydroxide

10. EPA SW-846 is the analytical reference source for ___.
a. Drinking water analysis
b. Solid and hazardous waste analysis
c. NPDES analysis
d. SPCC sampling requirements

11. Samples for TCLP metals analysis should be rotated for ___ +2 hours?
a. 24 hours
b. 10 hours
c. 18 hours
d. 36 hours

12. Airborne volatile organic compounds may be collected in a grab sample by using:
a. A Tedlar bag with a sample pump
b. An untreated filter cassette
c. A cascade impactor
d. A cyclone